Which statement about function mapping is true?

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Multiple Choice

Which statement about function mapping is true?

Explanation:
Understanding how a function works means that for every input there is exactly one output. It’s perfectly fine for different inputs to produce the same output—that’s called a many-to-one mapping. So saying a function can map multiple inputs to the same output value is true. It isn’t true that a function cannot map the same input to any output, because by definition each input must have some output. It also doesn’t require outputs to be unique for each input, since two different inputs can share the same output. The domain doesn’t have to be infinite either; it can be finite or infinite.

Understanding how a function works means that for every input there is exactly one output. It’s perfectly fine for different inputs to produce the same output—that’s called a many-to-one mapping. So saying a function can map multiple inputs to the same output value is true. It isn’t true that a function cannot map the same input to any output, because by definition each input must have some output. It also doesn’t require outputs to be unique for each input, since two different inputs can share the same output. The domain doesn’t have to be infinite either; it can be finite or infinite.

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